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📋 DSSSB Optometrist 2026 · Post Code 09/26
🏁 2019 Paper — Final Part
DSSSB Optometrist
Previous Year Paper 2019
Part 5 — Q81 to Q96
The final 16 questions from DSSSB Optometrist 2019 covering Accommodative Esotropia, Autorefractometer, Nystagmus, Contact Lens (fit, deposits, infection risk), Fungal Keratitis, Corneal Sensation, Eye Banking, Aphakic Optics & Heterophoria — completing the entire 2019 paper.
📅 Exam Year: 2019
❓ Questions: Q81–Q96
📌 Vacancies 2026: 15 Posts
⏰ Last Date: 28 Mar 2026
🎉 This is the final part of the complete DSSSB Optometrist 2019 Previous Year Paper series. Q81 to Q96 cover: Accommodative Esotropia types, Autorefractometer limitations, Physiological vs Pathological Nystagmus, Single-cut contact lens design, Wettability, Contact lens definitions, Tight-fit characteristics, Protein denaturation on lenses, Infection risk by modality, Fungal keratitis organisms, Corneal sensation loss causes, Donor eye retrieval timing, Corneal storage methods, Aphakic optics, and Heterophoria diagnosis.
How to use: Click your chosen option → correct answer and full explanation appear instantly. Your accuracy is tracked live in the floating scorecard (drag it anywhere on screen).
📑 Questions in This Part (Q81–Q96)
Q81 — Accommodative Esotropia — NOT True
Q82 — Refractometer — NOT True
Q83 — Physiological Nystagmus
Q84 — Single Cut Lens Design
Q85 — Wettability — True Statement
Q86 — Contact Lens — NOT Correct
Q87 — Tight Fit Soft CL — NOT a Characteristic
Q88 — Protein Denaturation — NOT Caused by
Q89 — Highest Infection Risk Modality
Q90 — Most Common Fungus in Corneal Ulcer
Q91 — NOT Causing Decreased Corneal Sensation
Q92 — Donor Eye Retrieval Time
Q93 — Short-Term Corneal Storage — True
Q94 — Donor Eye Retrieval (Repeated Q)
Q95 — Aphakic Eye Refractive Change
Q96 — Heterophoria — Diagnosis Test
Q-81
Which statement is NOT true with regard to accommodative esotropia? (DSSSB Optometrist Previous Year Question Paper)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Binocular Vision / Strabismus👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C
Accommodative esotropia is NON-paralytic — the extraocular muscles are anatomically intact and fully functional. Option C is FALSE. It is a concomitant strabismus driven entirely by an abnormal AC/A (accommodative convergence/accommodation) ratio. Types: Refractive type — due to high hypermetropia (+3D or more); correcting hypermetropia with glasses resolves the squint. Non-refractive type — high AC/A ratio; needs bifocals. Options A, B, D are TRUE. Paralytic strabismus = incomitant, results from CN III/IV/VI palsy.
Q-82
Which of the following is NOT true about a refractometer? (DSSSB Optometrist Previous Year Question Paper)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Ophthalmic Instrumentation👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: D
Option D is FALSE. Subjective refraction is ALWAYS required to finalise a spectacle prescription. Autorefractometers are prone to instrument myopia (over-minus due to accommodation triggered by proximity of the target), minor alignment errors, and cannot account for the patient’s neurological adaptation. Autorefractometer values = starting point only. Final Rx requires subjective refinement with a phoropter or trial frame. Options A, B, C are true: refractometers use the principle of retinoscopy/indirect illumination, autorefractometers are the prime example, and they are objective instruments.
Q-83
Which of these is a physiological nystagmus? (DSSSB Optometrist Previous Year Question Paper)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Binocular Vision / Neuro-Ophthalmology👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C. Optokinetic nystagmus
Optokinetic Nystagmus (OKN) is a completely normal, physiological reflex elicited when the eye tracks a continuously moving field of repetitive patterns (e.g., watching a picket fence from a moving train). The eye smoothly pursues the target, then rapidly saccades back — slow phase (pursuit) + fast phase (saccade) = jerk nystagmus. OKN is used clinically to test visual acuity in pre-verbal children, detect malingering, and assess vestibular function. Pathological nystagmus: Spasmus nutans (head nodding + nystagmus in infants), Latent nystagmus (only present when one eye is covered), Congenital jerk nystagmus.
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You’ve Reached the Last 16 Questions of the DSSSB 2019 Paper — Now Prepare Deeper
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Q-84
Single cut lenses have a design with: (DSSSB Optometrist Previous Year Question Paper)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Contact Lens👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A
A single cut contact lens features a simplified geometry where the entire front (anterior) surface is one continuous single curved surface — no lenticulation or multiple curves on the front. This contrasts with a lenticular (double cut) lens which has two zones on the front: a central optical zone and a peripheral carrier zone. The single cut design is simpler to manufacture but produces thicker edges and is less suitable for high plus or minus powers. It is an older design, largely superseded by lenticular designs for high prescriptions.
Q-85
Which statement is true about wettability? (DSSSB Optometry MCQs with Answers)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Contact Lens👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A
Wettability = the ability of a liquid (tear film) to adhere to and spread across a solid surface (contact lens). Option A is TRUE. Options B, C, D are all FALSE: A wetting angle of 0° = perfect wetting (liquid spreads completely) — NOT no wetting. Wettability is critically important for contact lens comfort and optical clarity — a poorly wettable lens causes unstable tear film → blurred vision, dryness, and discomfort. Smaller the contact angle → greater the wetting (NOT lesser). High EWC (equilibrium water content) hydrogel lenses typically have better wettability.
Q-86
Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to a contact lens? (DSSSB Optometry MCQs with Answers)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Contact Lens👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C
Option C is FALSE and anatomically incorrect. A contact lens rests on the tear film overlying the anterior surface of the cornea — NOT on the anterior surface of the crystalline lens (which is deep behind the iris). Options A and B are TRUE: Dk = oxygen permeability (D = diffusion coefficient of O₂ through lens material, k = solubility coefficient). Dk/L = oxygen transmissibility (L = lens central thickness in cm). Higher Dk/L = more O₂ reaches cornea → less hypoxia. Option D is TRUE: CLs correct RE, irregular astigmatism (keratoconus), and are used cosmetically (colour CLs).
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Q-87
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of too tight a fit of a soft contact lens? (DSSSB Optometry MCQs with Answers)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Contact Lens👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C
Excessive movement is the hallmark of a flat/loose fitting lens — NOT a tight one. Option C is FALSE. Signs of a too tight/steep fit: ① No post-blink movement (lens grips the limbus — Option A, TRUE) ② 100% resistance on push-up test (Option B, TRUE) ③ Limbal hyperaemia ④ Lens impressions on conjunctiva ⑤ Reduced lens transmissibility → corneal hypoxia and oedema. Option D is also FALSE — tight fit reduces tear exchange and actually decreases effective oxygen delivery to the cornea despite good Dk/L of the material.
Q-88
Deposits on contact lens from denatured proteins are NOT caused by: (DSSSB Optometrist Solved Papers PDF)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Contact Lens👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C. Water
Pure water alone does NOT cause protein denaturation on contact lenses. Protein denaturation on CL surfaces is triggered by environmental stressors: Heat (thermal disinfection methods — disrupts tertiary protein structure), UV light (photochemical degradation), and Dryness (dehydration of lens → protein aggregation and opacification). The main protein in contact lens deposits is lysozyme — a tear protein. Once denatured, proteins become insoluble white/grey deposits that reduce optical clarity and trigger inflammatory reactions (Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis).
Q-89
Which modality of contact lens wear causes maximum chances of infection? (DSSSB Optometrist Solved Papers PDF)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Contact Lens👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C. Extended wear hydrogel
Extended wear hydrogel (sleeping in conventional hydrogel lenses) carries the highest infection risk — up to 10–15× higher than daily wear. Mechanism: overnight wear severely restricts corneal oxygenation → hypoxic stress → epithelial barrier breakdown → microbial colonisation under the lens. The most feared complication is Microbial Keratitis (MK), potentially sight-threatening. Infection risk ranking (lowest to highest): Daily disposable < Daily wear < Flexible wear < Extended wear conventional hydrogel. Silicon hydrogel EW lenses have reduced (but not eliminated) risk due to higher Dk/L.
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Q-90
The most common fungus that causes corneal ulcer is: (DSSSB Optometrist Solved Papers PDF)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Ocular Diseases👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A. Aspergillus
Aspergillus is the most common filamentous fungus causing fungal keratitis (mycotic corneal ulcer), typically following agricultural or vegetative matter trauma (paddy husk, thorn). Clinical features: dry, raised, greyish-white stromal infiltrate with satellite lesions, feathery/finger-like projections, hypopyon. Treatment: topical Natamycin (first line). Options B, C, D are all bacteria, not fungi — Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacterial hyperacute conjunctivitis/keratitis), Staphylococcus and Proteus (bacterial keratitis). Key note: Fusarium is common in tropical regions and contact lens-associated fungal keratitis.
Q-91
Which of the following is NOT responsible for causing decreased corneal sensations? (DSSSB Optometrist 2026 preparation)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Ocular Diseases👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: D. Cataract
Cataract is an opacification of the crystalline lens — it has absolutely no effect on corneal innervation. Causes of decreased/absent corneal sensation: ① Viral keratitis — Herpes simplex (neurotropic — damages trigeminal subepithelial plexus) and Herpes zoster ophthalmicus ② Neuroparalytic keratitis — CN V (trigeminal) damage → anaesthetic cornea → neurotrophic ulcer ③ Leprosy — M. leprae invades peripheral nerves including corneal nerves ④ Long-term contact lens wear ⑤ Acoustic neuroma ⑥ Riley-Day syndrome. Cataract = posterior segment to lens (anterior to retina), not neural.
Q-92
Optimum time for the removal of donor eyes from the body of a deceased is within: (DSSSB Optometrist 2026 preparation)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Community Optometry / Eye Banking👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A. 6 hours
Donor eyes should be retrieved ideally within 4–6 hours of death to preserve endothelial cell viability. Post-mortem ischemia and autolytic processes rapidly degrade the corneal endothelium — the critical single layer of cells that maintains corneal deturgescence. Once degenerated, endothelial cells cannot regenerate. Storage after retrieval: Moist chamber at 4°C → up to 48 hours. McCarey-Kaufman (MK) medium at 4°C → 4 days. Optisol/CPTES at 4°C → 14 days. Organ culture at 37°C → up to 4 weeks.
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Q-93
Regarding short-term storage of donor cornea — which statement is true? (DSSSB Optometrist 2026 preparation)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Community Optometry / Eye Banking👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A
Moist chamber method = classic short-term storage: the entire enucleated globe (not just the button) is placed in a sterile moist chamber at 4°C for up to 48 hours — Option A is TRUE. Options B, C, D are FALSE: Moist chamber preserves the whole globe, not just the button (B is false). MK medium is used for medium-term storage (up to 4 days), not the short-term moist chamber method (C is false). Storage up to 2 weeks requires Optisol or organ culture (D is false). Moist chamber: simplest, oldest method — widely used in India where labs may not have MK medium.
Q-94
Optimum time for the removal of donor eyes from the body of a deceased is within: (DSSSB Optometrist 2026 preparation)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Community Optometry / Eye Banking👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A. 6 hours
This question is repeated in the original paper (same as Q92) — a common occurrence in DSSSB exams. The answer remains 6 hours. Retrieval within 4–6 hours preserves corneal endothelial cell viability, which is essential for successful keratoplasty. The corneal endothelium has ~2,000–2,500 cells/mm² at birth, declining with age — once lost, they do not regenerate in vivo. Surgeons require a minimum of ~2,000 cells/mm² in the donor tissue for a viable graft. Endothelial cell density is measured with specular microscopy before tissue allocation.
Q-95
The refractive change that occurs in an aphakic eye is: (DSSSB optometry MCQs with answers PDF)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Visual Optics👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: A
In aphakia (absence of crystalline lens), the eye loses approximately +18 to +20D of refractive power, becoming highly hypermetropic. The reduced optical system shifts focal points dramatically: Anterior focal point ≈ 23 mm in front of cornea (previously 15 mm in phakic eye). Posterior focal point ≈ 31 mm behind cornea (well behind the retina). Compare with phakic eye: AFF ≈ 15.7 mm, PFP ≈ 24.1 mm. The aphakic eye requires approximately +10 to +12D spectacle correction (or IOL implantation) to place the image on the retina.
Q-96
Heterophoria CANNOT be diagnosed with the help of which of the following tests? (DSSSB optometry MCQs with answers PDF)
DSSSB Optometrist 2019 — Binocular Vision👆 Click an option to check your answer
✓ Correct Answer: C. Cover test
The simple cover test (cover-uncover test) is used to detect heterotropia (manifest strabismus) — NOT heterophoria. Heterophoria is a latent deviation, only present when binocular fusion is broken. To diagnose heterophoria: Maddox rod (dissociates by creating a line and spot — different images for each eye), Maddox wing (measures near phoria using dissociative septum), Alternating cover test (fully dissociates fusion → phoria becomes manifest). Note: Option D “Cover-uncover test” is included as a separate option — the cover-uncover method CAN detect phoria when the eye moves after uncovering.
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❓ Frequently Asked Questions
What is accommodative esotropia and how does it differ from paralytic strabismus? ▼
Accommodative esotropia is a non-paralytic concomitant inward squint caused by excessive accommodative convergence, typically in uncorrected hypermetropia (+3D or more). The EOMs are fully functional — no paralysis. Paralytic strabismus (incomitant) results from CN III/IV/VI palsy causing complete or partial paralysis of one or more EOMs. Treatment of accommodative ET: correct the hypermetropia with full cycloplegic refraction.
Which contact lens wearing modality has the highest risk of infection? ▼
Extended wear hydrogel lenses (sleeping in conventional hydrogel lenses) carry the highest risk — up to 10–15× more than daily wear. Overnight wear = severe corneal hypoxia + debris entrapment = compromised epithelial barrier = microbial keratitis risk. Lowest risk: daily disposable lenses (fresh lens daily, no solution, no case contamination).
Which fungus most commonly causes corneal ulcer? ▼
Aspergillus is the most common filamentous fungus. Typically follows agricultural/vegetative trauma (paddy husk). Features: dry raised stromal infiltrate, satellite lesions, feathery borders, hypopyon. Treatment: topical Natamycin. Fusarium is also common especially in contact lens wearers. Neisseria, Staphylococcus, Proteus are bacteria — not fungi.
Within how many hours should donor eyes be retrieved after death? ▼
Donor eyes must be retrieved within 6 hours of death (ideally 4–6 hours) to preserve endothelial cell viability. Storage options: Moist chamber at 4°C → 48 hours · MK medium → 4 days · Optisol → 14 days · Organ culture at 37°C → up to 4 weeks. Endothelial cells do not regenerate — minimum ~2000 cells/mm² required for viable graft.
